- #1

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Sorry if this is a bit trivial, I was wondering if there is a way of converting a series

\Sum_{n=1}^{+\infty} a_n

[TEX] \Sum_{n=1}^{+\infty} a_n [/TEX]

into an integral

\int_0^1 f(x) dx

[TEX]\int_0^1 f(x) dx[/TEX]

such that both are equal (give the same result). In that case, what is the relation between a_n and f(x) (are they some kind of reciproques?)